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74
'SUBELEMENT 4AA -- Rules and Regulations (6 questions)
6
4AA-1.1
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator
in the 75 meter band?
3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz
3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz
3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
4AA-1.2
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator
in the 40 meter band?
7000 kHz to 7300 kHz
7025 kHz to 7300 kHz
7025 kHz to 7350 kHz
7000 kHz to 7025 kHz
4AA-1.3
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator
in the 20 meter band?
14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
4AA-1.4
What are the frequency privileges authorized to the Advanced operator
in the 15 meter band?
21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz
21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz
21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz
21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz
4AA-2.1
What is meant by automatic retransmission?
The retransmitting station is actuated by a received electrical
signal
The retransmitting station is actuated by a telephone control link
The retransmitting station is actuated by a control operator
The retransmitting station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse
code
4AA-2.2
What is the term for the retransmission of signals by an amateur radio
station whereby the retransmitting station is actuated solely by the presence
of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, i.e.,
without any direct, positive action by the control operator?
Simplex retransmission
Manual retransmission
Linear retransmission
Automatic retransmission
4AA-2.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station automatically
retransmit programs or the radio signals of other amateur stations?
Only when the station licensee is present
Only when in repeater operation
Only when the control operator is present
Only during portable operation
4AA-2.4
What is meant by manual retransmission?
A retransmitted signal that is not automatically controlled
A retransmitted signal that is automatically controlled
An OSCAR satellite transponder
The theory behind operational repeaters
4AA-3.1
What is meant by repeater operation?
An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third
party traffic
An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point
and a remotely controlled station
Manual or simplex operation
Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are
automatically retransmitted
4AA-3.2
What is a closed repeater?
A repeater containing control circuitry that limits access to the
repeater to members of a certain group
A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access
to any licensed amateur
A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same
frequency, a closed pair
A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge
4AA-3.3
What frequencies in the 10 meter band are available for repeater
operation?
28.0-28.7 MHz
29.0-29.7 MHz
29.5-29.7 MHz
28.5-29.7 MHz
4AA-3.4
What determines the maximum effective radiated power a station in
repeater operation may use?
Repeaters are authorized 1500 watts power output at all times
The percent modulation and emission type used
Polarization and direction of major lobes
Frequency and antenna height above average terrain
4AA-3.5
How is effective radiated power determined?
By measuring the output power of the final amplifier
By dividing the final amplifier power by the feed-line losses
By calculating the product of the transmitter power to the antenna
and the antenna gain
By measuring the power delivered to the antenna
4AA-3.6
What is an open repeater?
A repeater that contains no special control circuitry to limit
access to any licensed amateur
A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater
group
A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that
it is available for use
A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated
4AA-3.7
What frequencies in the 6 meter band are available for repeater
operation?
51.00-52.00 MHz
50.25-52.00 MHz
52.00-53.00 MHz
52.00-54.00 MHz
4AA-3.8
What frequencies in the 2 meter band are available for repeater
operation?
144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz
144.50-148.00 MHz
144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz
146.00-148.00 MHz
4AA-3.9
What frequencies in the 1.25 meter band are available for repeater
operation?
220.25-225.00 MHz
220.50-225.00 MHz
221.00-225.00 MHz
223.00-225.00 MHz
4AA-3.10
What frequencies in the 0.70 meter band are available for repeater
operation?
420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz
420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz
420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz
420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz
4AA-4.1
What is meant by auxiliary operation?
Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that
indicated on the station license for a period of more than three months
Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above
50.1 MHz
Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above
29.5 MHz
Radio communications for remotely controlling other amateur radio
stations, for automatically relaying the signals of other amateur stations
in a system of stations or for intercommunicating with other amateur
stations in a system of stations
4AA-4.2
What are three uses for stations in auxiliary operation?
Remote control of other amateur stations, automatically relaying
signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and
intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio
stations
Remote control of model craft and vehicles, automatically relaying
signals of other amateur stations in a system of stations and
intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations
Remote control of other amateur stations and of model craft and
vehicles, manually relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of
stations and intercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of
amateur radio stations
Operation for more than three months at a location more than 50 miles from
the location listed on the station license, automatically relaying signals
from other amateur stations in a system of stations and intercommunicating
with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio stations
4AA-4.3
A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate with which
stations?
Stations in the public safety service
Other amateur stations in the system of amateur stations shown on
the system network diagram
Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation
Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control
4AA-4.4
What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary operation?
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
436-438 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
435-437 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
435-438 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
434-437 MHz
4AA-5.1
What is meant by remote control of an amateur radio station?
Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical
location other than that shown on the station license
Automatic operation of a station from a control point located
elsewhere than at the station transmitter
An amateur radio station operating under automatic control
Manual operation of a station from a control point located
elsewhere than at the station transmitter
4AA-5.2
How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under
remote control differ from one under local control?
Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3
minutes if the control link malfunctions
Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4
minutes if the control link malfunctions
Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5
minutes if the control link malfunctions
Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10
minutes if the control link malfunctions
4AA-5.3
If the control link for a station under remote control malfunctions, how
long may the station continue to transmit?
5 seconds
10 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
4AA-5.4
What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of an amateur
radio station?
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
436-438 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
435-437 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
435-438 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
434-437 MHz
4AA-5.5
What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control of a station
in repeater operation?
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
436-438 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
435-437 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
434-437 MHz
All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
435-438 MHz
4AA-6.1
What is meant by automatic control of an amateur radio station?
Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of devices
and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be
present at the control point at all times
Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is radio
communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station
Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is remotely
controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be
present at the control point at all times
Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of a
control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station
4AA-6.2
How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a station under
automatic control differ from one under local control?
Under local control, there is no control operator
Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be
present at the control point at all times
Under automatic control, there is no control operator
Under local control, a control operator is not required to be
present at the control point at all times
4AA-6.3
Which amateur stations may be operated by automatic control?
Stations without a control operator
Stations in repeater operation
Stations that do not have transmission-limiting timing devices
Stations that transmit codes and cipher groups, as defined in FCC
Part 97.117
4AA-7.1
What is a control link?
The automatic control devices of an unattended station
An automatically operated link
The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely
controlled station
A transmission-limiting timing device
4AA-7.2
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the
control point and a remotely controlled station?
Tone link
Wire control
Remote control
Control link
4AA-8.1
What is a system network diagram?
As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing each station in a
system of stations, and its relationship to other stations and to the
control point
As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram describing a computer
interface to an amateur radio station
As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram demonstrating how a mobile
amateur radio station used on board a ship or aircraft is electrically
separate from and independent of all other radio equipment on board
As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing the stages of an
amateur transmitter or external radio frequency power amplifier
4AA-8.2
What type of diagram shows each station and its relationship to other
stations in a network of amateur stations, and to the control point(s)?
A control link diagram
A system network diagram
A radio network diagram
A control point diagram
4AA-9.1
At what level of modulation must an amateur station in repeater
operation transmit its identification?
At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission
At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the
repeater
At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated
transmission
At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84
4AA-9.2
At what level of modulation must an amateur station in auxiliary
operation transmit its identification?
At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission
At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the
repeater
At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated
transmission
At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84
4AA-9.3
What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur
stations in repeater operation?
The letters "AUX" must follow the station call sign when
identifying by radiotelegraphy
The letters "RPTR" must follow the station call sign when
identifying by radiotelegraphy
The word "auxiliary" must be added after the call sign when
identifying by radiotelephony
The word "repeater" must be added after the call sign when
identifying by radiotelephony
4AA-9.4
What additional station identification requirements apply to amateur
stations in auxiliary operation?
The word "auxiliary" must be transmitted at the end of the call
sign when identifying by radiotelephony
The letters "RPTR" must precede the station call sign when
identifying by radiotelegraphy
The letters "AUX" must precede the station call sign when
identifying by radiotelegraphy
The words "remote control" must be added after the call sign when
identifying by radiotelephony
4AA-10.1
When is prior FCC approval required before constructing or altering an
amateur station antenna structure?
When the antenna structure violates local building codes
When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet
When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be
150 feet high
When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be
100 feet high
4AA-10.2
What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC before
constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high?
An Environmental Impact Statement
A Special Temporary Authorization
Prior approval
An effective radiated power statement
4AA-11.1
How is antenna height above average terrain determined?
By an aerial survey
The height of the center of radiation of the antenna above an
averaged value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain
The height of the antenna above the highest value of the elevation
above sea level for surrounding terrain
By measuring the highest point of the antenna above the lowest
value of surrounding terrain
4AA-11.2
For a station in repeater operation transmitting on 146.94 MHz, what is
the maximum ERP permitted for an antenna height above average terrain of more
than 1050 feet?
100 watts
200 watts
400 watts
800 watts
4AA-12.1
What are business communications?
Third party traffic that involves material compensation
Any transmission that facilitates the regular business or
commercial affairs of any party
Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a
commercial tow truck service
An autopatch using a commercial telephone system
4AA-12.2
What is the term for a transmission or communication the purpose of
which is to facilitate the regular business or commercial affairs of any
party?
Duplex autopatch
Third party traffic that involves compensation
Business communications
Simplex autopatch
4AA-12.3
Under what conditions, if any, may business communications be
transmitted by an amateur station?
When the total remuneration does not exceed $25
When the control operator is employed by the FCC
When transmitting international third party traffic
During an emergency
4AA-13.1
What are the only types of messages that may be transmitted to an
amateur station in a foreign country?
Call sign and signal reports
Emergency messages
Business messages
Personal remarks
4AA-13.2
What are the limitations on international amateur radiocommunications
regarding the types of messages transmitted?
Emergency communications only
Technical or personal messages only
Business communications only
Call sign and signal reports only
4AA-14.1
Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators accept payment
for using their stations to send messages?
When employed by the FCC
When passing emergency traffic
Under no circumstances
When passing international third party traffic
4AA-14.2
Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an amateur station
in repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication
services to another party?
When the repeater is operating under portable power
When the repeater is under local control
During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
Under no circumstances
4AA-15.1
Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination?
The examiner
The FCC
The VEC
Any Novice licensee
4AA-15.2
What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove?
The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute
The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute
The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code
at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
4AA-15.3
Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A) telegraphy
examination?
The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question
mark
4AA-16.1
Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written examination?
The FCC
Any Novice licensee
The test examiner
The VEC
4AA-16.2
Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for preparing an
Element 2 written examination?
From FCC PR Bulletin 1035C
From FCC PR Bulletin 1035B
From FCC PR Bulletin 1035D
From FCC PR Bulletin 1035A
4AA-17.1
Who is eligible for administering an examination for the Novice operator
license?
An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra
class license and at least 18 years old
An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced
or Extra class license and at least 18 years old
An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra
class license and at least 16 years old
An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced
or Extra class license and at least 16 years old
4AA-17.2
For how long must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator
examination retain the test papers?
Ten years from the date of the examination
One year from the date of the examination
Twelve years from the date of the examination
Until the license is issued
4AA-17.3
Where must the volunteer examiner for a Novice operator examination
retain the test papers?
With the examinee's station records
With the VEC that issued the papers
With the volunteer examiner's station records
With the Volunteer Examiner Team Chief's station records
4AA-18.1
What is the minimum passing score on a written examination element for
the Novice operator license?
84 percent, minimum
74 percent, minimum
70 percent, minimum
80 percent, minimum
4AA-18.2
For a 20 question Element 2 written examination, how many correct
answers constitute a passing score?
10 or more
12 or more
14 or more
15 or more
4AA-18.3
In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are counted as one
word?
2
5
8
10
4AA-19.1
What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
16 years old
21 years old
18 years old
13 years old
4AA-19.2
Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer examiners be compensated
for their services?
Under no circumstances
When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25
The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25
miles to the test site
Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the
examination session
4AA-19.3
Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose amateur station
license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a
volunteer examiner?
Under no circumstances
Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or
suspension
Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of
suspension
Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC
4AA-19.4
Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a company which is
engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur
radio transmissions be a volunteer examiner?
If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the
company
If the employee does not normally communicate with the
manufacturing or distribution part of the company
If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her
customers
If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and
policies part of the company
4AA-20.1
What are the penalties for fraudulently administering examinations?
The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not
to exceed 3 months
A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license
The examiner may be restricted to giving only Novice class exams
4AA-20.2
What are the penalties for administering examinations for money or other
considerations?
The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not
to exceed 3 months
A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
The examiner may be restricted to administering only Novice class
license exams
Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license
'SUBELEMENT 4AB -- Operating Procedures (1 question)
1
4AB-1.1
What is facsimile?
The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture
when printed
The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
The transmission of video by amateur television
The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper
4AB-1.2
What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture
transmitted by an amateur station?
The modern standard is 240 lines per minute
The modern standard is 50 lines per minute
The modern standard is 150 lines per second
The modern standard is 60 lines per second
4AB-1.3
What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile picture
transmitted by an amateur station?
Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm
1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm
4AB-1.4
What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?
Television
Facsimile
Xerography
ACSSB
4AB-1.5
In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness and darkness
converted into voltage variations?
With an LED
With a Hall-effect transistor
With a photodetector
With an optoisolator
4AB-2.1
What is slow-scan television?
The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio
The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper
The transmission of moving pictures by radio
The transmission of still pictures by radio
4AB-2.2
What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan television?
20 lines per minute
15 lines per second
4 lines per minute
240 lines per minute
4AB-2.3
How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur slow-scan
television picture?
30
60
120
180
4AB-2.4
What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television
picture?
2300 Hz
2000 Hz
1500 Hz
120 Hz
4AB-2.5
What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television
picture?
120 Hz
1500 Hz
2000 Hz
2300 Hz
'SUBELEMENT 4AC -- Radio Wave Propagation (2 questions)
2
4AC-1.1
What is a sporadic-E condition?
Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations
A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer
height
Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height
Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height
4AC-1.2
What is the propagation condition called where scattered patches of
relatively dense ionization develops seasonally at E layer heights?
Auroral propagation
Ducting
Scatter
Sporadic-E
4AC-1.3
In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?
The equatorial regions
The arctic regions
The northern hemisphere
The polar regions
4AC-1.4
On which amateur frequency band is extended distant propagation effect
of sporadic-E most often observed?
2 meters
6 meters
20 meters
160 meters
4AC-1.5
What appears to be the major cause of the sporadic-E condition?
Wind shear
Sunspots
Temperature inversions
Meteors
4AC-2.1
What is a selective fading effect?
A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the
receiving station
A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the
ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station
A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving
and transmitting stations
4AC-2.2
What is the propagation effect called when phase differences between
radio wave components of the same transmission are experienced at the
recovery station?
Faraday rotation
Diversity reception
Selective fading
Phase shift
4AC-2.3
What is the major cause of selective fading?
Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at
the receiving station
Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
Phase differences between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
4AC-2.4
Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading?
CW and SSB
FM and double sideband AM
SSB and AMTOR
SSTV and CW
4AC-2.5
How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective
fading?
It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
4AC-3.1
What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?
The readability of SSB signals increases
FM communications are clearer
CW signals have a clearer tone
CW signals have a fluttery tone
4AC-3.2
What is the cause of auroral activity?
A high sunspot level
A low sunspot level
The emission of charged particles from the sun
Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
4AC-3.3
In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional
antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
South
North
East
West
4AC-3.4
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
At F-layer height
In the equatorial band
At D-layer height
At E-layer height
4AC-3.5
Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?
CW and SSB
SSB and FM
FM and CW
RTTY and AM
4AC-4.1
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
E-layer skip
D-layer skip
Auroral skip
Radio waves may be bent
4AC-4.2
How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the
geometric horizon?
By approximately 1/3 the distance
By approximately twice the distance
By approximately one-half the distance
By approximately four times the distance
4AC-4.3
To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited?
Approximately 1000 miles
Approximately 500 miles
Approximately 1500 miles
Approximately 2000 miles
4AC-4.4
What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is
received from a station over 500 miles away?
D-layer absorption
Faraday rotation
Tropospheric ducting
Moonbounce
4AC-4.5
What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and collides with
other particles?
Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave
Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave
Aurora is created
Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance
'SUBELEMENT 4AD -- Amateur Radio Practice (4 questions)
4
4AD-1.1
What is a frequency standard?
A net frequency
A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
4AD-1.2
What is a frequency-marker generator?
A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
A sweep generator
A broadband white noise generator
A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
4AD-1.3
How is a frequency-marker generator used?
In conjunction with a grid-dip meter
To provide reference points on a receiver dial
As the basic frequency element of a transmitter
To directly measure wavelength
4AD-1.4
What is a frequency counter?
A frequency measuring device
A frequency marker generator
A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use
before automatic transmissions are made
A broadband white noise generator
4AD-1.5
How is a frequency counter used?
To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial
To generate a frequency standard
To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter
To measure frequency
4AD-1.6
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a
reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-1.0 ppm?
165.2 Hz
14.652 kHz
146.52 Hz
1.4652 MHz
4AD-1.7
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a
reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-0.1 ppm?
14.652 Hz
0.1 MHz
1.4652 Hz
1.4652 kHz
4AD-1.8
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a
reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-10 ppm?
146.52 Hz
10 Hz
146.52 kHz
1465.20 Hz
4AD-1.9
What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a
reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-1.0 ppm?
43.21 MHz
10 Hz
1.0 MHz
432.1 Hz
4AD-1.10
What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a
reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-0.1 ppm?
43.21 Hz
0.1 MHz
432.1 Hz
0.2 MHz
4AD-1.11
What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a
reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy
of +/-10 ppm?
10 MHz
10 Hz
4321 Hz
432.1 Hz
4AD-2.1
What is a dip-meter?
A field strength meter
An SWR meter
A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
A marker generator
4AD-2.2
Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators?
It can measure signal strength accurately
It can measure frequency accurately
It can measure transmitter output power accurately
It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit
4AD-2.3
How does a dip-meter function?
Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector
coil
Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered
current
Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit
Q
4AD-2.4
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?
To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure
percentage of modulation
To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of
modulation
To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a
tuned circuit resonant frequency
4AD-2.5
What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit
being checked?
Resistive and inductive
Inductive and capacitive
Resistive and capacitive
Strong field
4AD-2.6
How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned circuit being
checked?
As loosely as possible, for best accuracy
As tightly as possible, for best accuracy
First loose, then tight, for best accuracy
With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to
be checked, for best accuracy
4AD-2.7
What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with the
tuned circuit being checked?
Harmonics are generated
A less accurate reading results
Cross modulation occurs
Intermodulation distortion occurs
4AD-3.1
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of
an oscilloscope?
Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth
Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments
Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency
increments
4AD-3.2
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of
a D'Arsonval movement type meter?
Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
4AD-3.3
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of
a frequency counter?
Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base
stability
Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time
base stability
Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic
4AD-3.4
How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?
By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time
base
By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the
vertical sweep rate
By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier
frequency response
By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier
frequency response
4AD-3.5
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
By using slower digital logic
By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
By increasing the accuracy of the time base
By using faster digital logic
4AD-4.1
What is the condition called which occurs when the signals of two
transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final
amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the
original transmissions are generated?
Amplifier desensitization
Neutralization
Adjacent channel interference
Intermodulation interference
4AD-4.2
How does intermodulation interference between two transmitters usually
occur?
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase
from airplanes passing overhead
When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both
of their final amplifiers
When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
one or both of their final amplifiers
When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
airplanes passing overhead
4AD-4.3
How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close
proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the
feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
4AD-4.4
What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with an emission J3E
transmitter?
Reduced amplifier efficiency
Increased intelligibility
Sideband inversion
Distortion
4AD-4.5
How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter
amplifier design?
By using a push-push amplifier
By using a push-pull amplifier
By operating class C
By operating class AB
4AD-5.1
What is receiver desensitizing?
A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low
A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high
A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on
a nearby frequency
A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is
turned down
4AD-5.2
What is the term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused
by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band?
Desensitizing
Quieting
Cross modulation interference
Squelch gain rollback
4AD-5.3
What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity
caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals?
Intermodulation distortion
Quieting
Desensitizing
Overloading
4AD-5.4
What causes receiver desensitizing?
Audio gain adjusted too low
Squelch gain adjusted too high
The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
Squelch gain adjusted too low
4AD-5.5
How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?
Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
Increase the transmitter audio gain
Decrease the receiver squelch gain
Increase the receiver bandwidth
4AD-6.1
What is cross-modulation interference?
Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the
desired signal
4AD-6.2
What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from
a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?
Intermodulation distortion
Cross-modulation interference
Receiver quieting
Capture effect
4AD-6.3
How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
By installing a filter at the receiver
By using a better antenna
By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain
By adjusting the pass-band tuning
4AD-6.4
What is the result of cross-modulation?
A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
Receiver quieting
The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
4AD-7.1
What is the capture effect?
All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
4AD-7.2
What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage of one
particular emission F3E signal by another emission F3E signal?
Desensitization
Cross-modulation interference
Capture effect
Frequency discrimination
4AD-7.3
With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced?
FM
SSB
AM
CW
'SUBELEMENT 4AE -- Electrical Principles (10 questions)
10
4AE-1.1
What is reactive power?
Wattless, non-productive power
Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
Power lost because of capacitor leakage
Power consumed in circuit Q
4AE-1.2
What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive power associated
with inductors and capacitors?
Effective power
True power
Peak envelope power
Reactive power
4AE-1.3
What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or
electrostatic field?
Potential energy
Amperes-joules
Joules-coulombs
Kinetic energy
4AE-1.4
What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages across reactances
in series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them?
Capacitance
Resonance
Conductance
Resistance
4AE-2.1
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
The highest frequency that will pass current
The lowest frequency that will pass current
The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive
reactance
The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
4AE-2.2
Under what conditions does resonance occur in an electrical circuit?
When the power factor is at a minimum
When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive
reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
4AE-2.3
What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an electrical circuit
when the inductive reactance equals the capacitive reactance?
Reactive quiescence
High Q
Reactive equilibrium
Resonance
4AE-2.4
What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to XL
Approximately equal to XC
4AE-2.5
What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to XL
Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to XC
4AE-2.6
What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit
at resonance?
It is at a minimum
It is at a maximum
It is dc
It is zero
4AE-2.7
What is the characteristic of the current flow in a parallel R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum
The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum
The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc
The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero
4AE-3.1
What is the skin effect?
The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases
The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases
The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor increase the impedance
The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor decrease the impedance
4AE-3.2
What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF current flows
along the surface of the conductor?
Layer effect
Seeburg Effect
Skin effect
Resonance
4AE-3.3
Where does practically all of RF current flow in a conductor?
Along the surface
In the center of the conductor
In the magnetic field around the conductor
In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center
4AE-3.4
Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a few
thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface?
Because of skin effect
Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the
DC resistance
Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior
Because of the ac-resistance of the conductor's self inductance
4AE-3.5
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF current than for
DC?
Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies
Because of the Heisenburg Effect
Because of skin effect
Because conductors are non-linear devices
4AE-4.1
What is a magnetic field?
Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
A force set up when current flows through a conductor
The force between the plates of a charged capacitor
The force that drives current through a resistor
4AE-4.2
In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor when current
is flowing?
In the same direction as the current
In a direction opposite to the current flow
In all directions; omnidirectional
In a direction determined by the left hand rule
4AE-4.3
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic
field?
A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor
4AE-4.4
What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored
in an electrostatic field?
Coulombs
Joules
Watts
Volts
4AE-4.5
What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?
Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the
plates
Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the
dielectric constant of the material between the plates
4AE-4.6
What is the dielectric constant for air?
Approximately 1
Approximately 2
Approximately 4
Approximately 0
4AE-4.7
What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor?
The resistance divided by the current
The ratio of the current to the resistance
The diameter of the conductor
The amount of current
4AE-5.1
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
79.6 MHz
1.78 MHz
3.56 MHz
7.96 MHz
4AE-5.2
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
1.99 kHz
1.78 MHz
1.99 MHz
1.78 kHz
4AE-5.3
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
3.18 MHz
3.18 kHz
7.12 MHz
7.12 kHz
4AE-5.4
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
10.1 MHz
63.7 MHz
10.1 kHz
63.7 kHz
4AE-5.5
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
13.1 MHz
14.5 MHz
14.5 kHz
13.1 kHz
4AE-5.6
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?
19.9 kHz
17.8 kHz
19.9 MHz
17.8 MHz
4AE-5.7
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?
2.84 MHz
28.4 MHz
21.3 MHz
2.13 MHz
4AE-5.8
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
23.7 MHz
23.7 kHz
35.4 kHz
35.4 MHz
4AE-5.9
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?
28.1 kHz
28.1 MHz
49.7 MHz
49.7 kHz
4AE-5.10
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4E-5-1 when L
is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?
17.7 MHz
17.7 kHz
53.1 MHz
53.1 kHz
4AE-5.11
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?
50.3 MHz
15.9 MHz
15.9 kHz
50.3 kHz
4AE-5.12
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
29.1 kHz
29.1 MHz
5.31 MHz
5.31 kHz
4AE-5.13
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?
23.7 kHz
3.54 kHz
23.7 MHz
3.54 MHz
4AE-5.14
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?
2.65 kHz
20.5 kHz
2.65 MHz
20.5 MHz
4AE-5.15
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?
18.4 MHz
2.12 MHz
18.4 kHz
2.12 kHz
4AE-5.16
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
1.33 kHz
14.5 MHz
1.33 MHz
14.5 kHz
4AE-5.17
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?
6.63 MHz
6.63 kHz
10.3 MHz
10.3 kHz
4AE-5.18
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?
3.18 MHz
3.18 kHz
7.12 kHz
7.12 MHz
4AE-5.19
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
3.56 MHz
7.96 kHz
3.56 kHz
7.96 MHz
4AE-5.20
What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-2 when L
is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?
1.77 MHz
1.68 MHz
1.77 kHz
1.68 kHz
4AE-5.21
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
18.9 kHz
1.89 kHz
189 Hz
58.7 kHz
4AE-5.22
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?
58.7 kHz
606 kHz
47.3 kHz
16.5 kHz
4AE-5.23
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
211 kHz
16.5 kHz
47.3 kHz
21.1 kHz
4AE-5.24
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218?
21.1 kHz
27.9 kHz
17 kHz
58.7 kHz
4AE-5.25
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?
95 kHz
10.5 kHz
10.5 MHz
17 kHz
4AE-5.26
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?
4.49 kHz
44.9 kHz
22.3 kHz
222.6 kHz
4AE-5.27
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225?
4.49 kHz
44.9 kHz
22.3 kHz
223 kHz
4AE-5.28
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195?
92.8 kHz
10.8 kHz
22.3 kHz
44.9 kHz
4AE-5.29
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
22.3 kHz
76.2 kHz
31.4 kHz
10.8 kHz
4AE-5.30
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit which
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
22.3 kHz
10.8 kHz
13.1 kHz
76.2 kHz
4AE-5.31
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance
is 18,000 ohms?
75.1
7.51
71.5
0.013
4AE-5.32
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance
is 18,000 ohms?
4.31
43.1
13.3
0.023
4AE-5.33
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance
is 180 ohms?
0.00735
7.35
0.136
13.3
4AE-5.34
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance
is 10,000 ohms?
7.35
0.0319
71.5
31.9
4AE-5.35
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance
is 1,000 ohms?
36.8
0.273
0.368
2.73
4AE-5.36
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance
is 100 ohms?
0.221
4.52
0.00452
22.1
4AE-5.37
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance
is 22,000 ohms?
22.1
39
25.6
0.0256
4AE-5.38
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance
is 2,200 ohms?
0.031
32.2
31.1
25.6
4AE-5.39
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance
is 220 ohms?
23
0.00435
4.35
0.23
4AE-5.40
What is the Q of the circuit in Figure 4AE-5-3 when the resonant
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance
is 1,800 ohms?
1.84
0.543
54.3
23
4AE-6.1
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 100 ohms?
36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-6.2
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 50 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-6.3
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and
Xl is 250 ohms?
68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
4AE-6.4
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 100 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
4AE-6.5
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 25 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
4AE-6.6
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 50 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-6.7
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
X1 is 75 ohms?
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
4AE-6.8
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and
Xl is 500 ohms?
81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-6.9
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
Xl is 75 ohms?
76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-6.10
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
X1 is 25 ohms?
36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
4AE-7.1
Why would the rate at which electrical energy is used in a circuit be
less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?
Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between
the current and voltage
Because there are only resistances in the circuit
Because there are no reactances in the circuit
Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the
current and voltage
4AE-7.2
In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can
the true power be determined?
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current
4AE-7.3
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree
phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.414
0.866
0.5
1.73
4AE-7.4
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree
phase angle between the voltage and the current?
0.866
1.0
0.5
0.707
4AE-7.5
What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree
phase angle between the voltage and the current?
1.73
0.5
0.866
0.577
4AE-7.6
How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of
0.2 when the input is 100-VAC and 4-amperes is being drawn?
400 watts
80 watts
2000 watts
50 watts
4AE-7.7
How many watts are being consumed in a circuit having a power factor of
0.6 when the input is 200-VAC and 5-amperes is being drawn?
200 watts
1000 watts
1600 watts
600 watts
4AE-8.1
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.2
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.3
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.4
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB operation feedline loss, 4 dB
duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.5
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.6
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.7
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 120 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.8
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 150 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.9
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-8.10
What is the effective radiated power of a station in repeater operation
with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer
and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
dipole
4AE-9.1
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
4AE-9.2
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is
8 kilohms?
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
4AE-9.3
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16
kilohms?
R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
4AE-9.4
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
10 kilohms?
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
4AE-9.5
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
10 kilohms?
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
4AE-9.6
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
20 kilohms?
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
4AE-9.7
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
10 kilohms?
R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
4AE-9.8
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
10 kilohms?
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
4AE-9.9
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
20 kilohms?
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
4AE-9.10
In Figure 4AE-9, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage and
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
20 kilohms?
R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
'SUBELEMENT 4AF -- Circuit Components (6 questions)
6
4AF-1.1
What is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor diode/rectifier? (See
question 4AF-1.1)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-1.2
Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?
Junction and point contact
Electrolytic and junction
Electrolytic and point contact
Vacuum and point contact
4AF-1.3
What is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode? (See question 4AF-1.3)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-1.4
What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes?
Hot carrier and tunnel
Varactor and rectifying
Voltage regulator and voltage reference
Forward and reversed biased
4AF-1.5
What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
A negative resistance region
An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
4AF-1.6
What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes?
2.4 volts to 200 volts
1.2 volts to 7 volts
3 volts to 2000 volts
1.2 volts to 5.6 volts
4AF-1.7
What is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode? (See question 4AF-1.7)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-1.8
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
A high forward resistance
A very high PIV
A negative resistance region
A high forward current rating
4AF-1.9
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and
oscillation?
Point contact diodes
Zener diodes
Tunnel diodes
Junction diodes
4AF-1.10
What is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode? (See question 4AF-1.10)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-1.11
What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the
voltage applied to its terminals varies?
A varactor diode
A tunnel diode
A silicon-controlled rectifier
A Zener diode
4AF-1.12
What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?
It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current
Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage
It has a negative resistance region
It has a very high PIV
4AF-1.13
What is a common use of a varactor diode?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As a voltage controlled inductance
As a voltage controlled capacitance
4AF-1.14
What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
As balanced mixers in SSB generation
As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors
4AF-1.15
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?
The peak inverse voltage
The junction temperature
The forward voltage
The back EMF
4AF-1.16
How are junction diodes rated?
Maximum forward current and capacitance
Maximum reverse current and PIV
Maximum reverse current and capacitance
Maximum forward current and PIV
4AF-1.17
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF detector
As a high voltage rectifier
4AF-1.18
What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small
semi-conductor die?
Zener diode
Varactor diode
Junction diode
Point contact diode
4AF-1.19
What is common use for PIN diodes?
As a constant current source
As a constant voltage source
As an RF switch
As a high voltage rectifier
4AF-1.20
What special type of diode is often use for RF switches, attenuators,
and various types of phase shifting devices?
Tunnel diodes
Varactor diodes
PIN diodes
Junction diodes
4AF-2.1
What is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? (See question 4AF-2.1)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-2.2
What is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor? (See question 4AF-2.2)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-2.3
What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?
Cathode, plate and grid
Base, collector and emitter
Gate, source and sink
Input, output and ground
4AF-2.4
What is the meaning of the term alpha with regard to bipolar
transistors?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to collector current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to gate current
4AF-2.5
What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector
current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor?
Gamma
Epsilon
Alpha
Beta
4AF-2.6
What is the meaning of the term beta with regard to bipolar transistors?
The change of collector current with respect to base current
The change of base current with respect to emitter current
The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
The change in base current with respect to gate current
4AF-2.7
What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector
current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor?
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Delta
4AF-2.8
What is the meaning of the term alpha cutoff frequency with regard to
bipolar transistors?
The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration
The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration
The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
4AF-2.9
What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded
base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a
transistor?
Corner frequency
Alpha cutoff frequency
Beta cutoff frequency
Alpha rejection frequency
4AF-2.10
What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff frequency with regard to a
bipolar transistor?
That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor
4AF-2.11
What is the meaning of the term transition region with regard to
a transistor?
An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
The area of maximum P-type charge
The area of maximum N-type charge
The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type
material
4AF-2.12
What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
The collector current is at its maximum value
The collector current is at its minimum value
The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value
The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value
4AF-2.13
What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?
There is no base current
The transistor is at its operating point
No current flows from emitter to collector
Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
4AF-2.14
What is the schematic symbol for a unijunction transistor? (See question
4AF-2.14)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-2.15
What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
Base 1, base 2 and emitter
Gate, cathode and anode
Gate, base 1 and base 2
Gate, source and sink
4AF-2.16
For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a
solid-state power amplifier be operated?
Just below the saturation point
Just above the saturation point
At the saturation point
At 1.414 times the saturation point
4AF-2.17
What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both
metallic and non-metallic characteristics?
Silicon and gold
Silicon and germanium
Galena and germanium
Galena and bismuth
4AF-3.1
What is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled rectifier? (See
question 4AF-3.1)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-3.2
What are the three terminals of an SCR?
Anode, cathode and gate
Gate, source and sink
Base, collector and emitter
Gate, base 1 and base 2
4AF-3.3
What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR?
Conducting and nonconducting
Oscillating and quiescent
Forward conducting and reverse conducting
NPN conduction and PNP conduction
4AF-3.4
When an SCR is in the triggered or on condition, its electrical
characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured
between its cathode and anode)?
The junction diode
The tunnel diode
The hot-carrier diode
The varactor diode
4AF-3.5
Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical
characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier?
During a switching transition
When it is used as a detector
When it is gated "off"
When it is gated "on"
4AF-3.6
What is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC? (See question 4AF-3.6)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-3.7
What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary
SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?
TRIAC
Bilateral SCR
Unijunction transistor
Field effect transistor
4AF-3.8
What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
Emitter, base 1 and base 2
Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
Base, emitter and collector
Gate, source and sink
4AF-4.1
What is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode? (See question
4AF-4.1)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-4.2
What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting
diode?
60 volts and 20 mA
5 volts and 50 mA
1.7 volts and 20 mA
0.7 volts and 60 mA
4AF-4.3
What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
Reverse bias
Forward bias
Zero bias
Inductive bias
4AF-4.4
What are the advantages of using an LED?
Low power consumption and long life
High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption
High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement
A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source
4AF-4.5
What colors are available in LEDs?
Yellow, blue, red, brown and green
Red, violet, yellow, white and green
Violet, blue, yellow, orange and red
Red, green, orange, white and yellow
4AF-4.6
What is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp? (See question 4AF-4.6)
Selection A
Selection B
Selection C
Selection D
4AF-4.7
What type neon lamp is usually used in amateur radio work?
NE-1
NE-2
NE-3
NE-4
4AF-4.8
What is the DC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?
Approximately 67 volts
Approximately 5 volts
Approximately 5.6 volts
Approximately 110 volts
4AF-4.9
What is the AC starting voltage for an NE-2 neon lamp?
Approximately 110-V AC RMS
Approximately 5-V AC RMS
Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS
Approximately 48-V AC RMS
4AF-4.10
How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF?
A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF
A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF
A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency
RF
A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF
4AF-5.1
What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter
for emission J3E?
6 kHz at -6 dB
2.1 kHz at -6 dB
500 Hz at -6 dB
15 kHz at -6 dB
4AF-5.2
What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter
for emission A3E?
1 kHz at -6 dB
500 Hz at -6 dB
6 kHz at -6 dB
15 kHz at -6 dB
4AF-5.3
What is a crystal lattice filter?
A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals
An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals
A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz
crystals
A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
crystals
4AF-5.4
What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance
crystal lattice filters?
Splitting and tumbling
Tumbling and grinding
Etching and splitting
Etching and grinding
4AF-5.5
What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice
filter?
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
The center frequency chosen for the filter
The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter
The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
'SUBELEMENT 4AG -- Practical Circuits (10 questions)
10
4AG-1.1
What is a linear electronic voltage regulator?
A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output
A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off"
state to the "on" state
A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with
the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied
in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
4AG-1.2
What is a switching electronic voltage regulator?
A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied
in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
A regulator that provides more than one output voltage
A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with
the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
A regulator that gives a ramp voltage as its output
4AG-1.3
What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear
voltage regulator?
A Zener diode
A tunnel diode
An SCR
A varactor diode
4AG-1.4
What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring
efficient utilization of the primary power source?
A constant current source
A series regulator
A shunt regulator
A shunt current source
4AG-1.5
What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications where the
load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant?
A constant current source
A series regulator
A shunt current source
A shunt regulator
4AG-1.6
To obtain the best temperature stability, what should be the operating
voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator?
Approximately 2.0 volts
Approximately 3.0 volts
Approximately 6.0 volts
Approximately 10.0 volts
4AG-1.7
What is the meaning of the term remote sensing with regard to a linear
voltage regulator?
The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to
the load
Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops
The load connection is made outside the feedback loop
The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference
voltage
4AG-1.8
What is a three-terminal regulator?
A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing
transistors
A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier,
sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element
4AG-1.9
What the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator?
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and
voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
maximum output voltage
Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and
maximum output current
4AG-2.1
What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier?
Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle
Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle
Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the
signal cycle
Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
4AG-2.2
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output
throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff
region?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
4AG-2.3
What is the distinguishing characteristic of a Class B amplifier?
Output for the entire input signal cycle
Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of
the input signal cycle
Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
4AG-2.4
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the flow of current in the
output essentially in 180 degree pulses?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
4AG-2.5
What is a Class AB amplifier?
Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360
degrees of the signal input cycle
Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal
cycle
4AG-2.6
What is the distinguishing feature of a Class C
amplifier?
Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal
cycle
Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360
degrees of the input signal cycle
4AG-2.7
What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well
beyond cutoff?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
4AG-2.8
Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
4AG-2.9
Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
4AG-2.10
Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees
but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class AB
4AG-3.1
What is an L-network?
A network consisting entirely of four inductors
A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
A network used to generate a leading phase angle
A network used to generate a lagging phase angle
4AG-3.2
What is a pi-network?
A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
A Power Incidence network
An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two
inductors and one capacitor
4AG-3.3
What is a pi-L-network?
A Phase Inverter Load network
A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
A network with only three discrete parts
A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
4AG-3.4
Does the L-, pi-, or pi-L-network provide the greatest harmonic
suppression?
L-network
Pi-network
Inverse L-network
Pi-L-network
4AG-3.5
What are the three most commonly used networks to accomplish a match
between an amplifying device and a transmission line?
M-network, pi-network and T-network
T-network, M-network and Q-network
L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network
L-network, M-network and C-network
4AG-3.6
How are networks able to transform one impedance to another?
Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load
The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the
resistive part of an impedance
The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the
reactive part of an impedance
The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance
and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance
4AG-3.7
Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio?
L-network
Pi-network
Constant-K
Constant-M
4AG-3.8
Why is the L-network of limited utility in impedance matching?
It matches a small impedance range
It has limited power handling capabilities
It is thermally unstable
It is prone to self resonance
4AG-3.9
What is an advantage of using a pi-L-network instead of a pi-network for
impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type
transmitter and a multiband antenna?
Greater transformation range
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater harmonic suppression
4AG-3.10
Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?
L-network
Pi-network
Pi-L-network
Inverse-Pi network
4AG-4.1
What are the three general groupings of filters?
High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
Inductive, capacitive and resistive
Audio, radio and capacitive
Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce
4AG-4.2
What is a constant-K filter?
A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant
A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of
frequencies
A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
is a constant for all frequencies
A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design
bandwidth
4AG-4.3
What is an advantage of a constant-k filter?
It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from
the passband
It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies
It uses elliptic functions
The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be
varied
4AG-4.4
What is an m-derived filter?
A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design
bandwidth
A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
is a constant for all frequencies
A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M"
A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too
near cutoff for a constant-k filter.
4AG-4.5
What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?
A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
is a constant for all frequencies
It only requires capacitors
It has a maximally flat response over its passband
It requires only inductors
4AG-4.6
What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?
It has a maximally flat response over its passband
It allows ripple in the passband
It only requires inductors
A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
is a constant for all frequencies
4AG-4.7
When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a
constant-k filter?
When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency
When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too
close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter
When the number of components must be minimized
When high power levels must be filtered
4AG-5.1
What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
It must have a gain of less than 1
It must be neutralized
It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input
4AG-5.2
What are three major oscillator circuits often used in amateur radio
equipment?
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
4AG-5.3
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley
oscillator?
Through a neutralizing capacitor
Through a capacitive divider
Through link coupling
Through a tapped coil
4AG-5.4
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts
oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through a neutralizing capacitor
4AG-5.5
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce
oscillator?
Through a tapped coil
Through link coupling
Through a capacitive divider
Through capacitive coupling
4AG-5.6
Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in amateur radio
equipment utilizes a quartz crystal?
Negative feedback
Hartley
Colpitts
Pierce
4AG-5.7
What is the piezoelectric effect?
Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage
Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a
magnetic field
The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
4AG-5.8
What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
It is easy to neutralize
It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
It can be tuned over a wide range
It has a high output power
4AG-5.9
Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO?
Pierce
Colpitts
Hartley
Negative feedback
4AG-5.10
Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO?
The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
It is stable
It has high output power
4AG-6.1
What is meant by the term modulation?
The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio
is reached
Carrier rejection through phase nulling
A linear amplification mode
A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier
4AG-6.2
What are the two general categories of methods for generating emission
F3E?
The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced
modulator on the audio amplifier
The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance
modulator on the oscillator
The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance
modulator on the final amplifier
The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced
modulator on the oscillator
4AG-6.3
What is a reactance modulator?
A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to
produce FM signals
A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to
produce AM signals
A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to
produce FM signals
A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to
produce AM signals
4AG-6.4
What is a balanced modulator?
An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation
A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier
signal
A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier
signal
A modulator that produces a full carrier signal
4AG-6.5
How can an emission J3E signal be generated?
By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
4AG-6.6
How can an emission A3E signal be generated?
By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
By detuning a Hartley oscillator
By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier
4AG-7.1
How is the efficiency of a power amplifier determined?
Efficiency = (RF power out) / (DC power in) X 100%
Efficiency = (RF power in) / (RF power out) X 100%
Efficiency = (RF power in) / (DC power in) X 100%
Efficiency = (DC power in) / (RF power in) X 100%
4AG-7.2
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class C amplifier,
what should the plate-load resistance be with 1500-volts at the plate and
500-milliamperes plate current?
2000 ohms
1500 ohms
4800 ohms
480 ohms
4AG-7.3
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum Class B amplifier, what
should the plate-load resistance be with 800-volts at the plate and
75-milliamperes plate current?
679.4 ohms
60 ohms
6794 ohms
10,667 ohms
4AG-7.4
For reasonably efficient operation of a vacuum tube Class A operation
what should the plate-load resistance be with 250-volts at the plate and
25-milliamperes plate current?
7692 ohms
3250 ohms
325 ohms
769.2 ohms
4AG-7.5
For reasonably efficient operation of a transistor amplifier, what
should the load resistance be with 12-volts at the collector and 5 watts
power output?
100.3 ohms
14.4 ohms
10.3 ohms
144 ohms
4AG-7.6
What is the flywheel effect?
The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the
transmitter is turned off
The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC
The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several
hops through the ionosphere
4AG-7.7
How can a power amplifier be neutralized?
By increasing the grid drive
By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the
input
By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the
output
4AG-7.8
What order of Q is required by a tank-circuit sufficient to reduce
harmonics to an acceptable level?
Approximately 120
Approximately 12
Approximately 1200
Approximately 1.2
4AG-7.9
How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?
By tuning for maximum SWR
By tuning for maximum power output
By neutralization
By tuning the output
4AG-7.10
What is the procedure for tuning a power amplifier having an output
pi-network?
Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip
the plate current with the tuning capacitor
Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor
and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the
plate current with the loading capacitor
Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor
and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor
4AG-8.1
What is the process of detection?
The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier
to make an S-meter operational
The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal
The modulation of a carrier
The mixing of noise with the received signal
4AG-8.2
What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?
Rectification and filtering of RF
Breakdown of the Zener voltage
Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
4AG-8.3
What is a product detector?
A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer
A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies
A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated
carrier
A detector used to detect cross-modulation products
4AG-8.4
How are emission F3E signals detected?
By a balanced modulator
By a frequency discriminator
By a product detector
By a phase splitter
4AG-8.5
What is a frequency discriminator?
A circuit for detecting FM signals
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
An automatic bandswitching circuit
An FM generator
4AG-8.6
What is the mixing process?
The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
Distortion caused by auroral propagation
The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference
frequencies
4AG-8.7
What are the principal frequencies which appear at the output of a mixer
circuit?
Two and four times the original frequency
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
4AG-8.8
What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process?
Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity
4AG-8.9
What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy
reaches the mixer circuit?
Spurious mixer products are generated
Mixer blanking occurs
Automatic limiting occurs
A beat frequency is generated
4AG-9.1
How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?
As much gain as possible short of self oscillation
Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated
in the first mixer stage
Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first
mixer stage
It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
4AG-9.2
Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver only have sufficient
gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer
stage?
To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator
4AG-9.3
What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?
To provide most of the receiver gain
To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
To improve the receiver's noise figure
To develop the AGC voltage
4AG-9.4
What is an i-f amplifier stage?
A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
A receiver demodulator
A receiver filter
A buffer oscillator
4AG-9.5
What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate
frequency?
Cross-modulation distortion and interference
Interference to other services
Image rejection and selectivity
Noise figure and distortion
4AG-9.6
What is the primary purpose of the first i-f amplifier stage in a
receiver?
Gain
Tune out cross-modulation distortion
Dynamic response
Image rejection
4AG-9.7
What is the primary purpose of the final i-f amplifier stage in a
receiver?
Sensitivity
Selectivity
Noise figure performance
Squelch gain
4AG-10.1
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-10?
Switching voltage regulator
Linear voltage regulator
Common emitter amplifier
Emitter follower amplifier
4AG-10.2
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
Load resistors
Fixed bias
Self bias
Feedback
4AG-10.3
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C1?
Decoupling
Output coupling
Self bias
Input coupling
4AG-10.4
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of C3?
AC feedback
Input coupling
Power supply decoupling
Emitter bypass
4AG-10.5
In Figure 4AG-10, what is the purpose of R3?
Fixed bias
Emitter bypass
Output load resistor
Self bias
4AG-11.1
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-11?
High-gain amplifier
Common-collector amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Grounded-emitter amplifier
4AG-11.2
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of R?
Emitter load
Fixed bias
Collector load
Voltage regulation
4AG-11.3
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C1?
Input coupling
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Collector bypass
4AG-11.4
In Figure 4AG-11, what is the purpose of C2?
Output coupling
Emitter bypass
Input coupling
Hum filtering
4AG-12.1
What type of circuit is shown in Figure 4AG-12?
Switching voltage regulator
Grounded emitter amplifier
Linear voltage regulator
Emitter follower
4AG-12.2
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
Line voltage stabilization
Voltage reference
Peak clipping
Hum filtering
4AG-12.3
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It increases the output ripple
It provides a constant load for the voltage source
It increases the current handling capability
It provides D1 with current
4AG-12.4
What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It resonates at the ripple frequency
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It decouples the output
It filters the supply voltage
4AG-12.5
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It bypasses hum around D1
It is a brute force filter for the output
To self resonate at the hum frequency
To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
4AG-12.6
What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It prevents self-oscillation
It provides brute force filtering of the output
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It clips the peaks of the ripple
4AG-12.7
What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1
4AG-12.8
What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure 4AG-12?
It provides fixed bias for Q1
It provides fixed bias for D1
It decouples hum from D1
It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
4AG-13.1
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry inductor
to resonate in the 80 meter band?
150 picofarads
200 picofarads
100 picofarads
100 microfarads
4AG-13.2
What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad capacitor
to resonate in the 40 meter band?
200 microhenrys
150 microhenrys
5 millihenrys
5 microhenrys
4AG-13.3
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor
to resonate in the 20 meter band?
64 picofarads
6 picofarads
12 picofarads
88 microfarads
4AG-13.4
What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor
to resonate in the 15 meter band?
2 microhenrys
30 microhenrys
4 microhenrys
15 microhenrys
4AG-13.5
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry inductor
to resonate in the 160 meter band?
78 picofarads
25 picofarads
405 picofarads
40.5 microfarads
'SUBELEMENT 4AH -- Signals and Emissions (6 questions)
6
4AH-1.1
What is emission A3C?
Facsimile
RTTY
ATV
Slow Scan TV
4AH-1.2
What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated
transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
A3F
A3C
F3F
F3C
4AH-1.3
What is facsimile?
The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy
The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to
form a picture
The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means
The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means
4AH-1.4
What is emission F3C?
Voice transmission
Slow Scan TV
RTTY
Facsimile
4AH-1.5
What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter
is modulated by a facsimile signal?
F3C
A3C
F3F
A3F
4AH-1.6
What is emission A3F?
RTTY
Television
SSB
Modulated CW
4AH-1.7
What type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated
transmitter is modulated by a television signal?
F3F
A3F
A3C
F3C
4AH-1.8
What is emission F3F?
Modulated CW
Facsimile
RTTY
Television
4AH-1.9
What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter
is modulated by a television signal?
A3F
A3C
F3F
F3C
4AH-1.10
What type of emission results when a single sideband transmitter is used
for slow-scan television?
J3A
F3F
A3F
J3F
4AH-2.1
How can an emission F3E signal be produced?
By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier
By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier
By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator
4AH-2.2
How can an emission A3E signal be produced?
By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit
By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop
By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier
4AH-2.3
How can an emission J3E signal be produced?
By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering
By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning
By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing
By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization
4AH-3.1
What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier
frequency
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency
The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating
frequency
The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average
audio modulating frequency
4AH-3.2
In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation
from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?
Deviation index
Modulation index
Deviation ratio
Modulation ratio
4AH-3.3
What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation
rate of 3 kHz?
60
0.16
0.6
1.66
4AH-3.4
What is the deviation ratio for an emission F3E signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation
rate of 3.5 kHz?
2.14
0.214
0.47
47
4AH-4.1
What is meant by the term modulation index?
The processor index
The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and
the modulating frequency
The FM signal-to-noise ratio
The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency
4AH-4.2
In an emission F3E signal, what is the term for the ratio between the
deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency?
FM compressibility
Quieting index
Percentage of modulation
Modulation index
4AH-4.3
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with
the modulated frequency?
The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the
modulated frequency) increases
The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the
modulated frequency) increases
The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier
frequency (the modulated frequency)
The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
(the modulated frequency)
4AH-4.4
In an emission F3E signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000
Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when
the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
3
0.3
3000
1000
4AH-4.5
What is the modulation index of an emission F3E transmitter producing
an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz
modulating frequency?
6000
3
2000
1/3
4AH-5.1
What are electromagnetic waves?
Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each
other
A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at
right angles to each other
A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
other
4AH-5.2
What is a wave front?
A voltage pulse in a conductor
A current pulse in a conductor
A voltage pulse across a resistor
A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
4AH-5.3
At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?
Approximately 300 million meters per second
Approximately 468 million meters per second
Approximately 186,300 feet per second
Approximately 300 million miles per second
4AH-5.4
What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an
electromagnetic wave?
An electric field and a current field
An electric field and a magnetic field
An electric field and a voltage field
A voltage field and a current field
4AH-5.5
Why do electromagnetic waves not penetrate a good conductor to any great
extent?
The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator
The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield
Because of Eddy currents
The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field
4AH-6.1
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves travel in free
space?
The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned
Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index
The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to
its source
Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and
magnetic fields
4AH-6.2
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally
polarized?
The electric field is parallel to the earth
The magnetic field is parallel to the earth
Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical
4AH-6.3
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular
polarization?
The electric field is bent into a circular shape
The electric field rotates
The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth
The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna
4AH-6.4
When the electric field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth,
what is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
Circular
Horizontal
Vertical
Elliptical
4AH-6.5
When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what
is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
Circular
Horizontal
Elliptical
Vertical
4AH-6.6
When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth,
what is the polarization of the electromagnetic field?
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
Vertical
4AH-6.7
When the electric field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what
is the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
Vertical
Horizontal
Circular
Elliptical
4AH-7.1
What is a sine wave?
A constant-voltage, varying-current wave
A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by
a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function
A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner
4AH-7.2
How many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis in one complete
cycle?
180 times
4 times
2 times
360 times
4AH-7.3
How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?
90 degrees
270 degrees
180 degrees
360 degrees
4AH-7.4
What is the period of a wave?
The time required to complete one cycle
The number of degrees in one cycle
The number of zero crossings in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
4AH-7.5
What is a square wave?
A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle
A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage
levels and which remains an equal time at each level
A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle
A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal
portions of the cycle time
4AH-7.6
What is a wave called which abruptly changes back and forth between two
voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level?
A sine wave
A cosine wave
A square wave
A rectangular wave
4AH-7.7
Which sine waves make up a square wave?
0.707 times the fundamental frequency
The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics
The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics
4AH-7.8
What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency
and all the odd harmonics?
Square wave
Sine wave
Cosine wave
Tangent wave
4AH-7.9
What is a sawtooth wave?
A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time
at each level
A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or
vice versa)
A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by
a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
4AH-7.10
What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster
than the fall time (or vice versa)?
A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave
4AH-7.11
Which sine waves make up a sawtooth wave?
The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics
The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics
The fundamental frequency and all harmonics
4AH-7.12
What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency
and all the harmonics?
A sawtooth wave
A square wave
A sine wave
A cosine wave
4AH-8.1
What is the meaning of the term root mean square value of an AC voltage?
The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of
the peak AC voltage
The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect
in a given resistor as a peak AC voltage
The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect
in a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value
The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the
average AC value
4AH-8.2
What is the term used in reference to a DC voltage that would cause the
same heating in a resistor as a certain value of AC voltage?
Cosine voltage
Power factor
Root mean square
Average voltage
4AH-8.3
What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of
a complex waveform?
By using a grid dip meter
By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
By using an absorption wavemeter
By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
4AH-8.4
What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
117-VAC
331-VAC
82.7-VAC
165.5-VAC
4AH-8.5
What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
234 volts
165.5 volts
117 volts
331 volts
4AH-8.6
What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical
outlet?
234 volts
117 volts
331 volts
165.5 volts
4AH-8.7
What is the RMS voltage of a 165-volt peak pure sine wave?
233-VAC
330-VAC
58.3-VAC
117-VAC
4AH-8.8
What is the RMS value of a 331-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
117-VAC
165-VAC
234-VAC
300-VAC
4AH-9.1
For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP to average power
during a modulation peak in an emission J3E signal?
Approximately 1.0 to 1
Approximately 25 to 1
Approximately 2.5 to 1
Approximately 100 to 1
4AH-9.2
In an emission J3E signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power
ratio?
The frequency of the modulating signal
The degree of carrier suppression
The speech characteristics
The amplifier power
4AH-9.3
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier
stage in an emission F3E transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500 watts?
Approximately 900 watts
Approximately 1765 watts
Approximately 2500 watts
Approximately 3000 watts
4AH-9.4
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier
stage in an emission F1B transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts?
Approximately 850 watts
Approximately 1250 watts
Approximately 1667 watts
Approximately 2000 watts
4AH-9.5
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier
stage in an emission N0N transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts?
Approximately 250 watts
Approximately 600 watts
Approximately 800 watts
Approximately 1000 watts
4AH-10.1
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the
signal-to-noise ratio in a 160 meter band receiver?
In the detector
Man-made noise
In the receiver front end
In the atmosphere
4AH-10.2
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the
signal-to-noise ratio in a 2 meter band receiver?
In the receiver front end
Man-made noise
In the atmosphere
In the ionosphere
4AH-10.3
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the
signal-to-noise ratio in a 1.25 meter band receiver?
In the audio amplifier
In the receiver front end
In the ionosphere
Man-made noise
4AH-10.4
Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the
signal-to-noise ratio in a 0.70 meter band receiver?
In the atmosphere
In the ionosphere
In the receiver front end
Man-made noise
'SUBELEMENT 4AI -- Antennas & Feedlines (5 questions)
5
4AI-1.1
What is meant by the term antenna gain?
The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an
antenna to that of another antenna
The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in
the back direction
The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared
to the output power of the transmitter
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
(including any phasing lines present)
4AI-1.2
What is the term for a numerical ratio which relates the performance of
one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna?
Effective radiated power
Antenna gain
Conversion gain
Peak effective power
4AI-1.3
What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth?
Antenna length divided by the number of elements
The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to
perform well
The angle between the half-power radiation points
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends
of the elements
4AI-1.4
How can the approximate beamwidth of a rotatable beam antenna be
determined?
Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is
down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular difference
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and
measure the angle between the lines
Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and side of the antenna
4AI-2.1
What is a trap antenna?
An antenna for rejecting interfering signals
A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions
An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of
the presence of parallel LC networks
An antenna with a large capture area
4AI-2.2
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands
It has high gain
It minimizes harmonic radiation
It may be used for multiband operation
4AI-2.3
What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?
It will radiate harmonics
It can only be used for single band operation
It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies
It must be neutralized
4AI-2.4
What is the principle of a trap antenna?
Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances
The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna
The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around
the antenna "sees" a high impedance
The traps increase the antenna gain
4AI-3.1
What is a parasitic element of an antenna?
An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element
An element dependent on the antenna structure for support
An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather
than from a transmission line
A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy
4AI-3.2
How does a parasitic element generate an electromagnetic field?
By the RF current received from a connected transmission line
By interacting with the earth's magnetic field
By altering the phase of the current on the driven element
By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric
field
4AI-3.3
How does the length of the reflector element of a parasitic element beam
antenna compare with that of the driven element?
It is about 5% longer
It is about 5% shorter
It is twice as long
It is one-half as long
4AI-3.4
How does the length of the director element of a parasitic element beam
antenna compare with that of the driven element?
It is about 5% longer
It is about 5% shorter
It is one-half as long
It is twice as long
4AI-4.1
What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna?
Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
The specific impedance of the antenna
An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of
power as that radiated from an antenna
The resistance in the trap coils to received signals
4AI-4.2
What is the term used for an equivalent resistance which would dissipate
the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna?
Space resistance
Loss resistance
Transmission line loss
Radiation resistance
4AI-4.3
Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important?
Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match
impedances for maximum power transfer
Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the
near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side
ratio of the antenna
The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back
ratio of the antenna
4AI-4.4
What are the factors that determine the radiation resistance of an
antenna?
Transmission line length and height of antenna
The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the
length/diameter ratio of the conductors
It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant
Sunspot activity and the time of day
4AI-5.1
What is a driven element of an antenna?
Always the rearmost element
Always the forwardmost element
The element fed by the transmission line
The element connected to the rotator
4AI-5.2
What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in a HF beam
antenna?
1/4 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
3/4 wavelength
1 wavelength
4AI-5.3
What is the term for an antenna element which is supplied power from a
transmitter through a transmission line?
Driven element
Director element
Reflector element
Parasitic element
4AI-6.1
What is meant by the term antenna efficiency?
Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (transmission resistance) X 100%
Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (total resistance) X 100%
Efficiency = (total resistance) / (radiation resistance) X 100%
Efficiency = (effective radiated power) / (transmitter output) X 100%
4AI-6.2
What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an antenna
to the total resistance of the system?
Effective radiated power
Radiation conversion loss
Antenna efficiency
Beamwidth
4AI-6.3
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
Radiation resistance plus space impedance
Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance
Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
4AI-6.4
How can the antenna efficiency of a HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?
By installing a good ground radial system
By isolating the coax shield from ground
By shortening the vertical
By lengthening the vertical
4AI-6.5
Why does a half-wave antenna operate at very high efficiency?
Because it is non-resonant
Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation
resistance
Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power
Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types
of antennas
4AI-7.1
What is a folded dipole antenna?
A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long
A ground plane antenna
A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength
piece of wire
A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the
radiation resistance
4AI-7.2
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of
a simple dipole antenna?
It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth
It is essentially the same
It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole
It is greater
4AI-7.3
What is the input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole
antenna?
300 ohms
72 ohms
50 ohms
450 ohms
4AI-8.1
What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the
terminating impedance
The index of shielding for coaxial cable
The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
4AI-8.2
What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal
travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Surge impedance
Standing wave ratio
4AI-8.3
What is the velocity factor for a typical coaxial cable?
2.70
0.66
0.30
0.10
4AI-8.4
What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
The termination impedance
The line length
Dielectrics in the line
The center conductor resistivity
4AI-8.5
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter
than its electrical length?
Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
4AI-9.1
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line
which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
20 meters
3.55 meters
2.51 meters
0.25 meters
4AI-9.2
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission line
which is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
10.5 meters
6.88 meters
24 meters
50 meters
4AI-9.3
What is the physical length of a parallel antenna feedline which is
electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor
of 0.82.)
15 meters
24.3 meters
8.7 meters
70.8 meters
4AI-9.4
What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feedline at 3.65
MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.)
Electrical length times 0.8
Electrical length divided by 0.8
80 meters
160 meters
4AI-10.1
In a half-wave antenna, where are the current nodes?
At the ends
At the feed points
Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
4AI-10.2
In a half-wave antenna, where are the voltage nodes?
At the ends
At the feed point
Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
4AI-10.3
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage
exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
Equal voltage and current
Minimum voltage and maximum current
Maximum voltage and minimum current
Minimum voltage and minimum current
4AI-10.4
At the center of a half-wave antenna, what values of voltage and current
exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
Equal voltage and current
Maximum voltage and minimum current
Minimum voltage and minimum current
Minimum voltage and maximum current
4AI-11.1
Why is the inductance required for a base loaded HF mobile antenna less
than that for an inductance placed further up the whip?
The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base
The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base
The current is greater at the top
The voltage is less at the top
4AI-11.2
What happens to the base feed point of a fixed length HF mobile antenna
as the frequency of operation is lowered?
The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
4AI-11.3
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of
reactance to resistance?
To swamp out harmonics
To maximize losses
To minimize losses
To minimize the Q
4AI-11.4
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?
To improve reception
To lower the losses
To lower the Q
To tune out the capacitive reactance
4AI-12.1
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed
to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
Near the center of the vertical radiator
As low as possible on the vertical radiator
As close to the transmitter as possible
At a voltage node
4AI-12.2
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through
the use of loading coils?
It is increased
It is decreased
No change occurs
It becomes flat
4AI-12.3
Why are self-resonant antennas popular in amateur stations?
They are very broad banded
They have high gain in all azimuthal directions
They are the most efficient radiators
They require no calculations
4AI-12.4
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical
antenna?
Lower Q
Greater structural strength
Higher losses
Improved radiation efficiency